[BlueDragon]

What to us is a well-known Christian Protestant argument against veneration of saints has a christophobic origin.

That could only make logical sense IF it was "the Jews" whom did not want recognition of Jesus as TRUE Messiah to be supplanted by worship of a new martyr.

We can assume "the Jews" spoken of did not recognize Jesus as Messiah, but thought Him to be just another of the false ones. Which leaves their alleged objection to be something quite different than "Protestant" objections of the "veneration" of both "saints" and objects (relics), for the Jews were not concerned in the least with preserving focus upon Jesus as the Christ.

All that can be safely enough said without even entering into discussion of the historicity of the MartPol (as some term the Martyrdom of Polycarp). Not all versions agree...so it can be asked -- what version are you relying upon? What is it's lineage? Which version to "trust"/ Can any of the versions be trusted... or was the "letter" originally written (or first significantly altered) some time in the 3rd century?

[annalex]

Indeed, the Jews had their own reason to sneer at veneration of saints, for they believed the entire Christianity is a form of polytheism. Their concern about veneration of saints is logical, Protestant concern is not, since the Holy Scripture gives us ample examples of intercessory prayer, praiseworthy martyrdom, augmentatuon of abilities after death in a state of grace, and life eternal (see my #41)

Regarding the version, the same question can be put of the Holy Scripture. I gave the link to newagvent.org where I found the translation. Here is is again.