So how do you explain them being blameless in Luke? I am all ears.
How do YOU explain "righteous" Lot in II Peter 2? Is there a difference in human righteousness vs. God's righteousness? Paul speaks of it in Romans 10:3
For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves to the righteousness of God.
Scripture clearly states that NONE are righteous - which must mean as righteous as God, since one must be as righteous as God to enter His perfect heaven wherein nothing impure, not even a lie, can be allowed (Rev. 21:27). Lot sinned, Abraham sinned, Zechariah and Elizabeth sinned, even Mary sinned. NO human is without sin - though some are more evil than others. Human righteousness can never be righteous enough - it takes the righteousness of God which He imputes to those who believe on Christ Jesus. That is the essence of the Gospel of grace.