“Oh, so if there’s no evidence that means it impossible?”
It means that there’s zero evidence for your position.
Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus are evidence in favor of my position and contrary to yours because they do not contain the NT canon as is used today. Nor do they agree with each other, despite both predating the Vulgate.
This is evidence that, as of the early 4th century, there did not exist a common canon. Additional evidence for this fact can be found in the writings of the Church fathers prior to the publication of the Vulgate.
So - where’s the evidence for your position? There is none.
Your position is false and contrary to the historical evidence that we possess.
“whether anybody at that time bothered to sew them between two pieces of parchment at that time is completely immaterial.”
Marcion certainly didn’t think so.
Ah, now that you are pinned down you change your story. You said "the Vulgate published in 400 AD by Pope Damasus was the first canon with all the books." Athanasius catalogued the current canon, with all the books, well before that.