“You posts claims that I’m making “this argument”, that I’m making it “here”, and that you “don’t see it”. Maybe the reason no one can see it is that I haven’t made it.”
You have a definition of apostolicity that is contrary to what Ireneaus and Tertullian claimed. Hence the question.
When did this definition that you are advocating here first appear? Who was the first person to make this argument?
Those may be good questions, but IMO you've mistaken me for the author of the article. It's not my definition as I'm not the author, therefore I can't answer them for you. I would direct those questions to the OPC website (I gave a link in post #1), and let the author speak for himself.