Why deliver this fantasy in a supposed discussion of the word?
Why declare Joseph to be in open sin without a shred of evidence to support it?
Why not just accept the plain words of scripture?
I have not declared Joseph to be in open sin. On the contrary it is you who suggest that sin was present and that it is an either or proposition between Joseph and Mary as to who would be in open sin if Joseph took a consecrated virgin as his wife after the death of his first wife. Joseph is an righteous man and Mary was Immaculate.