“The same people you are quoting all argue for their inclusion.”
Inclusion is irrelevant! What we’re concerned with is whether or not they are equal to the scripture and therefore are to be used for the defense and creation of doctrine.
When “Pope” Gregory said the following, referencing Maccabees:
“Concerning which thing we do nothing irregularly, if we adduce a testimony from the books, which although not canonical are published for the edification of the people. For Eleazar wounding an elephant in battle, slew him, but fell under him whom he had destroyed.” — Morals, book 19, on 39th chap, of Job.
Was he picking a fight and contradicting centuries of what the “church” considered to be sacred writ? Or was he simply commenting on something that was the widely held position of the church of those ages? In fact, Gregory here is in direct agreement with Jerome and the others when he speaks of the apocrypha in this way.
You, on the other hand, are giving the apocrypha a greater power and authority than Jerome or Gregory.
Why is that?
And if you consider the Apocrypha to be scripture, why aren’t you roasting fish guts to fend off evil spirits everyday? Why aren’t you giving to charity, since apparently that work washes away sin and saves your soul from hell (and not Christ)?
” Babylon took over from Assyria.”
Babylon burned down Ninveh, which Baruch claims Nebuchadnezzer REIGNS from. Are you going to tell me that Nebuchadnezzer REIGNS from the capital of Assyria?
Sorry, but Baruch doesn’t know that Nebuchadnezzer was the King of Babylon and not of Assyria, and that is why he places him there instead of in Babylon as the Bible does.
“Nebuchadnezzer was the King of Babylon and not of Assyria”
The King of Babylon *was* the King of Assyria.
Again. You do not know your history. Score, Baruch 1, GPH 0.
Nebuchadnezzar destroyed Assyria.
These books do not make any claim to inspiration. On the contrary, the prologue of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus) asks pardon from the readers for all inexactitudes: "I entreat you... pardon us for those things wherein we may seem, while we follow the image of wisdom, to come short in the composition of words." The author of Maccabees concludes by saying, "I also will here make an end of my narration. Which if I have done well, and as it becometh the history, it is what I desired: but if not so perfectly, it must be pardoned me" (2 Maccabees 15:28, 39). That is not the language of divine inspiration!
First Maccabees notes that there were no prophets in Israel at that time (1 Maccabees 4:46; 9:27; 14:41). Since the New Testament frequently refers to the Scriptures as "the Law and the Prophets" (Matthew 5:17; 7:12; 11:13; 22:40; Luke 16:16; 24:44; John 1:45; Acts 13:15; 24:14; 28:23; Romans 3:21), how could a writing that specifically states that there were no prophets at the time when it was written be called Scripture?
What is more serious, the apocrypha teach doctrines that contradicts Scripture (see, for instance, Sirach 3:3,30, in contrast with Galatians 2:16,21; 3:10-14; Tobit 12:9 contradicts 1 John 1:7 and Hebrews 9:22; Wisdom 8:19,20 contradicts Romans 3:10). They encourage practices that do not conform to Scripture (Sirach 12:4-7 disagrees with Luke 6:27-38 and Matthew 5:43-48).
These books do not make any claim to inspiration. On the contrary, the prologue of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus) asks pardon from the readers for all inexactitudes: "I entreat you... pardon us for those things wherein we may seem, while we follow the image of wisdom, to come short in the composition of words." The author of Maccabees concludes by saying, "I also will here make an end of my narration. Which if I have done well, and as it becometh the history, it is what I desired: but if not so perfectly, it must be pardoned me" (2 Maccabees 15:28, 39). That is not the language of divine inspiration!
First Maccabees notes that there were no prophets in Israel at that time (1 Maccabees 4:46; 9:27; 14:41). Since the New Testament frequently refers to the Scriptures as "the Law and the Prophets" (Matthew 5:17; 7:12; 11:13; 22:40; Luke 16:16; 24:44; John 1:45; Acts 13:15; 24:14; 28:23; Romans 3:21), how could a writing that specifically states that there were no prophets at the time when it was written be called Scripture?
What is more serious, the apocrypha teach doctrines that contradicts Scripture (see, for instance, Sirach 3:3,30, in contrast with Galatians 2:16,21; 3:10-14; Tobit 12:9 contradicts 1 John 1:7 and Hebrews 9:22; Wisdom 8:19,20 contradicts Romans 3:10). They encourage practices that do not conform to Scripture (Sirach 12:4-7 disagrees with Luke 6:27-38 and Matthew 5:43-48).