Thanks for your comments. I am in full agreement that Jesus was crucified on Wednesday (not Friday) and rose sometime BEFORE dawn on Sunday. Technically, it was still the sabbath, but Scripture says in many places that Jesus rose on the "first day of the week":
After the Sabbath, at dawn on the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to look at the tomb. (Matthew 28:1)
When Jesus rose early on the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had driven seven demons. (Mark 16:9)
Early on the first day of the week, while it was still dark, Mary Magdalene went to the tomb and saw that the stone had been removed from the entrance. (John 20:1)
On the first day of the week, very early in the morning, the women took the spices they had prepared and went to the tomb. (Luke 24:1)
On the first day of the week we came together to break bread. Paul spoke to the people and, because he intended to leave the next day, kept on talking until midnight. (Acts 20:7)
The women did not go early on the Sabbath to the tomb, but early on the "first day of the week". The first day of the week was never the Sabbath (the seventh day of the week). There were, however, other days that were also called "sabbath" days, such as the Passover, Feast of Unleavened Bread, Feast of the Firstfruits, etc., those were the "extra" sabbaths that week of Christ's crucifixtion. Where some people get the wrong impression that Jesus died on Friday, is because Scripture says the soldiers went around breaking the legs of those crucified with Jesus so that they died before the Sabbath started and, since the Sabbath is Saturday (the seventh day of the week), they say he died on "good Friday". But we know that there was a "special" Sabbath that week in addition to the regular Saturday Sabbath.
I disagree that Christians are "supposed" to meet for worship on Saturdays and not Sunday. The Saturday Sabbath was an ordinance between God and the Jews, like circumscision. As Christians, we are not under the laws of Moses but under grace. The law was the schoolmaster to bring us to Christ, to point out our sinfulness and total inability to keep the perfect law of God and to point us to His mercy and grace. We are sanctified by the offering of Christ, once for all, and not by our own righteousness. The first Christians, many who were Jews, continued to keep Sabbath, but it was not an ordinance insisted upon the Gentiles as the first council of Jerusalem said.
w00t! w00t! : ) Trust YHWH not man. But I will warn you, once the scales start slipping off of your eyes, it is impossible to put them back on.
Technically, it was still the sabbath, but Scripture says in many places that Jesus rose on the "first day of the week":
No, technically it can be either. The Sabbath ended at sunset on Saturday. But in large part, your proofs do not establish that he rose on the first day, but rather that the tomb was empty well before dawn on the first day. However Mark 16 seems to be quite specific (as well as a couple more I could point out). So you have reason to believe your position is sound.
And I need not defend Diego1618 - He has fleshed out his position many times hereon, and by the math, he is right too...
So how can both be true? In fact, both can be true - The gloaming belongs to both days, and to neither. So this argument may well be defining the very moment that he arose.
As a proof, I will offer the idea that Yeshua was functioning as high priest from the moment of his mikvah by John the Baptist... He had no need to be baptized, he was following all righteousness. If one studies the matter one will find the mikvah is an instrumental ritual at the consecration of a mission or appointment wrt priestly duty. Each action performed by Yeshua must be examined in the light of priestly significance (not only, but as an aspect, as several aspects apply to his life and ministry). Therefore, one must look at the things the high priest did wrt the passover, and we should see those things played out in Yeshua's actions (and if one studies it, one certainly will).
For the purpose of this discussion, the salient thing is the 'marking of the sheaves'. After the sacrifice of the perfect lamb, the high priest goes into seclusion in the ground beneath the Temple. He remains there until the end of the Sabbath just prior to the first fruits offering on the first day. He rises up (still consecrated, can't be touched) precisely in the gloaming, in order to mark the sheaves which will be left standing until dawn, when they are cut, processed, roasted, and offered as First Fruits. The point being that Yeshua would have risen too, in order to mark the sheaves precisely as the sun set.
On the first day of the week we came together to break bread. Paul spoke to the people and, because he intended to leave the next day, kept on talking until midnight. (Acts 20:7)
As an aside, this is a serious proof against a Sunday sabbath. It is an ancient Jewish tradition to gather together after the Sabbath to 'break bread' together, and may well be why Protestants are so fond of potluck dinners... the time-frame here is Saturday evening, after dark (which is the first day).
I disagree that Christians are "supposed" to meet for worship on Saturdays and not Sunday.
It isn't 'meeting for worship' that is on point. It is the keeping of the Sabbath. You may meet to worship every and any day.
The Saturday Sabbath was an ordinance between God and the Jews, like circumscision.
The Sabbath day was given in Eden, and was sanctified for all time. No one has the right or warrant to change it at all.
As Christians, we are not under the laws of Moses but under grace. The law was the schoolmaster to bring us to Christ, to point out our sinfulness and total inability to keep the perfect law of God and to point us to His mercy and grace.
Yet Yeshua specifically commanded to DO and to TEACH the Torah. In the light of that (which is inescapable) your interpretation must necessarily change. The followers of Yeshua are defined as those who keep the commandments of YHWH and have the testimony of Yeshua. How then can your statement above (which is true btw) fit into that?
Well..........that's another problem. It doesn't!
Translators would like you to believe their "Main Stream" bias.......but the Greek says something altogether different. Think about it. The "Church" wants a special day because they don't want the Romans to confuse THEM with the Hebrews (early second century) so they begin worshiping the day after the Sabbath. Now....they need a reason so they invent a "Sunday Resurrection" by changing the word "σαββάτων" from its plural Greek meaning of "Sabbaths" to mean "week" (singular). Then....for good measure they insert the word "day". So here's what you end up with:
King James: [Luke 24:1]Now upon the first day of the week (σαββάτων), very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them.
The italicized words, are of course inserted by translators as they do not appear in the original Greek. Here's how "Robert Young" (a lifelong student of Hebrew and Greek) translates the same verse in his "Young's Literal Translation:
"And on the first of the sabbaths, at early dawn, they came to the tomb, bearing the spices they made ready, and certain [others] with them,"
He was a "Scottish Free Church" Presbyterian (19th century) but insisted his translation remain true to the literal original language. He is also the author of "Young's Analytical Concordance to the Bible" found in most theological libraries. Why would he say the word "σαββάτων" meant Sabbaths (plural) and the rest of the Catholic/Protestant translators call it week (singular)?
The Church had an agenda to convince the folks Yeshua rose on Sunday morning. It's really no more difficult than that. There is not one passage in the New Testament that will say that He rose on the first day of the week. They all say Sabbath (Saturday) morning.....early before sunrise (if you read the Greek). In fact....the Greek word for week (EBDOMA) does not even appear in the New Testament. It appears in the Septuagint twice [Genesis 29:27-28][Daniel 9:27]..........in Greek, of course.
Now the obvious question. Why is "σαββάτων" plural?
"Seven sabbaths were to be counted from the Feast of First-fruits or Passover. Consequently, these came to be known as "First Sabbath," "Second Sabbath" etc., down to the seventh. And according to Julian Morgenstern, former President of Hebrew University, this practice continued in Galilee till the time of Christ or the Common Era. It is still observed by some groups in Palestine today. Thus, there was an annual date known as "First Sabbath," just after Passover." [page 230..... The Life of Christ in Stereo]
You, of course find this in [Leviticus 23:15-16]
[...] but it was not an ordinance insisted upon the Gentiles as the first council of Jerusalem said.
Better study that council again. according to the verdict, they already have Moses being preached to them in the synagogues. And the question on point is whether the gentile adult males need to be circumcised in order to be saved. The circumcision of baby males continues to this day throughout the Christian community. So what? Did they fail to pay attention to that verdict, or is our interpretation today full of leaven? Best go see what the Torah has to say.