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To: editor-surveyor; Whosoever

How many times did Yeshua say “it is written?”


He was a Rabbi.. why not?.. it was expected of him by corrupted clergy to provide proof of religious treason..

So he used “THEIR” scripture to expose them.. of “their” spiritual treason..
The Jewish Rabbi’s used the Torah... much the same... as Christian RAbbi’s use the New Testament now..

To lead AWAY from GOD.. toward their dogma’s.. and “their church’s”.. i.e. sheep pen’s..
Little has changed..

Some worship the bible and some bypass the bible altogether and worship their church, no middleman(except clergy).. which may be more honest..
Idolatry in your face.. an idol need not be a graven image.. merely a perceived one..


72 posted on 03/10/2013 5:09:37 PM PDT by hosepipe (This propaganda has been edited to include some fully orbed hyperbole..)
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To: hosepipe

“Their scripture” was his scripture.


77 posted on 03/10/2013 5:22:33 PM PDT by editor-surveyor (Freepers: Not as smart as I'd hoped they'd be)
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To: hosepipe
“he used “THEIR” scripture”

So then when Paul wrote to Timothy, that means Timothy also had a different Scripture to follow than we do?

2Ti 3:13 But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse, deceiving, and being deceived. 14 But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them; 15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Now since the "New Testament" as we know it today did not exist in Paul or Timothy's time, and neither of them even had a clue that the letters they wrote would become part the "Scriptures" for "our time", just what Scriptures did Timothy know from his childhood that fitted him for his work for God through his belief in Jesus as Messiah if not the only 'Written Word of God' that existed until the 4th century AD?

FYI ... the only word used for "Law" as in the "Law of Moses" is the Greek word "nomos". The Greek word "dogma" translated as ordinances in the KJV in Col 2:14 nailing to the cross, only pertains to the laws and decrees made by men, NOT by God.

G1378 Total Occurrences: 6 δογμα (2) Dan_6:12, Luk_2:1 δογμασιν (2) Eph_2:15, Col_2:14 δογματα (1) Act_16:4 δογματων (1) Act_17:7

G1378 Total LXX Occurrences: 12 δογμα (10) Dan_2:13, Dan_3:10, Dan_3:29, Dan_4:6, Dan_6:8-10 (3), Dan_6:12, Dan_6:15, Dan_6:26 δογματι (2) Dan_3:12, Dan_6:13

78 posted on 03/10/2013 5:37:39 PM PDT by patlin ("Knowledge is a powerful source that is 2nd to none but God" ConstitutionallySpeaking 2011)
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