Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: ReignOfError

The plural in this case is literal. “Elohim” is the plural of “Eloah”. The first chapter of the gospel of John expands on its literality, as does Hebrews 7.


23 posted on 03/02/2013 10:56:35 PM PST by Olog-hai
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 16 | View Replies ]


To: Olog-hai; ReignOfError

re: “The plural in this case is literal. “Elohim” is the plural of “Eloah”.”

You are correct that “Elohim” is plural, and what’s interesting the article preceding Elohim is for singular, not a plural. This is why some New Testament scholars believe that the “we” passages with the singular article reflect the idea of “many” in one (the Trinity?).

Also, for those who say the “we” is due to the “royal we” that was used in King James time must remember that that is not the reason the “we” is used - it is used because it is in the Hebrew text itself, but there was no royal “we” usage in Old Testament times. That was a later european practice.


43 posted on 03/02/2013 11:58:39 PM PST by rusty schucklefurd
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 23 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson