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To: metmom
"The phrase *mother of Jesus* DOES show up in Scripture, however."

So does the phrase "Mother of my Lord" (Luke 1:43). Accepting for the moment your Nestorian premise that there were two Jesus, which one was St. Elizabeth referring to, the human Jesus or the divine Jesus?

Peace be with you

3,050 posted on 12/29/2012 9:50:12 AM PST by Natural Law (Jesus did not leave us a Bible, He left us a Church.)
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To: Natural Law

*Mother of GOD* does not show up in Scripture.


3,058 posted on 12/29/2012 10:09:15 AM PST by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: Natural Law; metmom

The problem with that verse is that we don’t know whether Elizabeth was meaning “master” or “a person exercising absolute ownership rights; lord (Lord), or something different. The word used was kurios for which several interpretations can be found here: http://biblesuite.com/thayers/2962.htm

Using that verse without the whole of scripture is useless.


3,063 posted on 12/29/2012 10:49:36 AM PST by CynicalBear
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