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To: annalex; CynicalBear; GeronL; metmom; Alex Murphy; bkaycee; blue-duncan; boatbums; caww; ...
What does it have to do with him fornicating with a nun? Or are you denying this historical fact?

Obviously what historical fact is being denied by you is that Luther was married, with both parties never having been married before, and which Scripturally was a marriage.

Thus your charge against them is technically adultery, but which presupposes physical adultery takes place when one denies a vow he made to stay single (Luther himself had been released from his Augustinian vows by Johann von Staupitz, as the head of the order, but that likely did not absolve him of his vow of chastity according to Rome).

(Also, contrary to the charge or inference that he left Rome in order to have sex are his writings prior to that in which he said at that time that he had no intent to marry, and which only occurred some years after his excommunication.)

Thus what we deny is that Luther and Kathrina were necessarily bound by the vows they made at that time. In Scripture vows that God confirms must be kept (but not a "Herod's vow"), yet religious vows made as an unbeliever are not necessarily binding, and as we see it both Luther and wife were no more born again when they made their vows than a Muslim is.

And as in Scripture lifelong vows of clerical celibacy are not required, and even if one marries after making a vow of celibacy then they are married, then the charge of fornication does not apply.

That they were living in adultery rests upon the premise that Rome has the power to bind such to celibacy, which premise is what we deny, and thus is the real issue.

I am typing this on a laptop which for me is even slower than normal, so i am being somewhat brief.

259 posted on 12/10/2012 6:09:24 AM PST by daniel1212 (Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
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To: daniel1212

Thanks daniel.

I need to go strip some wallpaper for a while. I’ll be back.


262 posted on 12/10/2012 6:12:54 AM PST by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: daniel1212
but that likely did not absolve him of his vow of chastity according to Rome.

Rome as it's man made teachings that have nothing to do with God but only to oppose Him.

his writings prior to that in which he said at that time that he had no intent to marry, and which only occurred some years after his excommunication.

Yes, after he was out from the RCC teachings/bondage and he renewed his mind with Truth....

"Such teachings come through hypocritical liars, whose consciences have been seared as with a hot iron. They forbid people to marry and order them to abstain from certain foods, which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and who know the truth." 1 Tim 4:2,3

265 posted on 12/10/2012 6:35:20 AM PST by presently no screen name
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To: daniel1212; CynicalBear; GeronL; metmom; Alex Murphy; bkaycee; blue-duncan; boatbums; caww
i am being somewhat brief.

God bless you for your brevity.

I understand that Luther and his "wife", and the rest of the Protestant world thinks nothing of breaking monastic and celibacy vows, but that does not alter the fact that neither was free to marry. Perhaps, Luther was somehow properly laicized, but certainly not the woman, whom he smuggled out in a barrel. It was fornication (not adultery since their vows were not marital).

316 posted on 12/10/2012 5:14:41 PM PST by annalex (fear them not)
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