Reagant, please read Oridgen, and other of the pre nicene -post apostolic writtings, and you will find that my difinition of Jesus Christ was very prevalent.
If your view of Christ was so established ... why did it take Imperial Execution to erradicate any other viewpoint?
Was God behind all those murders? If so, then why wasn’t he also behind the later version of those murders during the more recent inquisitions?
Reagant, please read Oridgen, and other of the pre nicene -post apostolic writtings, and you will find that my difinition of Jesus Christ was very prevalent.
If your view of Christ was so established ... why did it take Imperial Execution to erradicate any other viewpoint?
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Tepid, I have read them, in the original languages as well as English. Your definition isn’t what they teach by far.
There was a danger of unbiblical heresies (like the gnostics) preaching false gospels and leading people astray, that is why the council was called and the creed (a unifying statement of faith) written.
You are wrong in assuming that one is directly the cause of another, logical fallacy. The persecution of gnostics and other groups was revolutionary, not theological in essence.
I can recommend some decent Church history books of you want to know the truth rather than just repeat what you hear in priesthood meeting.