“How is psalm 110 going to convince the Jewish people to accept that G-d went and turned into a sort of pharaoh? Pure curiosity. The conflict I see is that Jews just won’t accept a “this man here, he is Hashem, too” scenario.”
If the scripture won’t convince them, what can?
No, what I ask is, where from psalm 110 can be inferred that a Jewish king can be like the pharaoh? That’s what’s going to be quite a stumbling block
we know OUR scripture better than anyone else