Paul makes it pretty clear regarding Christ and the Father and heir relationship and that they are two distinct personages, both being God...as does Christ himself and the Gospels.
Paul also speaks to Baptism for the Dead plainly, making it clear that if there was no resurrection resulting from Christ, there would be no need to be baptised for the dead...but there Christ did bring the resurrection, ergo...
Anyhow, my intent earlier was simply to clarify what happens in the Church regarding a person who loses their temple recommend as opposed to the impression the article left. They can still attend baptisms of their friends or relatives, and any civil marriage ceremonies held in the Chapels.
They just can’t attend the temple until they meet those requirements once again...and that means they cannot be a part of Baptisms for the Dead, or Temple Marriages.
I expected to get several responses from the Flying Inmans (a name they call themselves) and they did not disappoint. But they were taking issue with doctrine and my intent was simply to give explanation and clarification to the article.
Thanks for providing reference to some of the doctrinal side. God’s speed, and BZ.
My Witness for Christ, as an LDS Member
http://www.jeffhead.com/jlhwitness.htm
Iwondr, what Jeff fails to reference in the 1 Cor. 15 verse he's talking about is that Paul said "they" baptize the dead -- not "we." (Who are the "they?")
If I said in 2012 "they" baptize the dead -- meaning Mormons -- that doesn't mean I do it/we do it...or that it's an endorsement just 'cause I mentioned it.
Typical incompletion/obfuscation from Jeff.