I hope you are not implying that is an infallible interpretation? Why then would St. Paul draw an analogy between misunderstanding and tongues if we are to assume that is what he meant?
"If then I do not grasp the meaning of what someone is saying, I am a foreigner to the speaker, and the speaker is a foreigner to me." - 1 Corinthians 14:11
Absolutely infallible EX MY CATHEDRA. How do I know? I read the context. Of course it is about foreign tongues. Read through Acts and notice that the first public pronouncement of the Gospel included Jews speaking some 17+ different languages to other international Jews gathered in Jerusalem for Pentecost (Acts 2). Peter informed the multi-cultural crowd that these locally born & raised men, men without formal educations, were not drunk, but simply speaking the "...mighty deeds of God." in dialects known only to a select few in the crowd...a true miracle.
The phenomenon began to be thought of as a measure of spirituality, but Paul disabused the Corinthians of such a worldly view. Foreign tongues is something that was intended to shock unbelievers. If someone in a believers' gathering stood and spoke in a foreign tongue and no one was there to translate, the speaking did no good. Paul is explaining that if he cannot understand the language, "...the speaker is a foreigner to me". This is not eisegesis (the Roman view), but exegesis (let the writer speak to you). And don't go to the "private interpretation" argument. The text stands in perspicuity.