To: Quix
So here's the question.
When the Apostles "spoke in tongues," was it that all understood what was said, or that they actually spoke all opf those languages. I go with explanation (A). That is, the Apostles spoke and that each of the multitude heard what they said in their own language. Is it creditable that they spoke all of those tongues simultaneously?
7 posted on
03/09/2012 11:45:37 AM PST by
Kenny Bunk
((So, you're telling me Scalia, Alito, Thomas, and Roberts can't figure out this eligibility stuff?))
To: Kenny Bunk
In terms of Holy Spirit’s capacity?
YES! It’s exceedingly credible.
Besides
The BIBLE SAYS
“spoke in . . . “
NOT
“heard . . . “
9 posted on
03/09/2012 11:52:07 AM PST by
Quix
(Times are a changin' INSURE you have believed in your heart & confessed Jesus as Lord Come NtheFlesh)
To: Kenny Bunk
IT'S NEVER WISE
TO MEASURE
GOD ALMIGHTY
OR
HIS WAYS
BY
MAN'S STANDARDS,
MAN'S SENSIBILITIES,
MAN'S 'LOGIC,'
MAN'S NOTIONS,
MAN'S EXPERIENCES,
MAN'S HABITS,
MAN'S CULTURE,
MAN'S DOCTRINES,
MAN'S DOGMA,
MAN'S COMFORT ZONES,
MAN'S BRILLIANCE,
MAN'S IGNORANCE,
MAN'S KNOWLEDGE,
MAN'S ANYTHING.
One would think Christianity had
learned
from the example of the Pharisees.
Evidently not.
11 posted on
03/09/2012 11:57:34 AM PST by
Quix
(Times are a changin' INSURE you have believed in your heart & confessed Jesus as Lord Come NtheFlesh)
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