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To: D-fendr; smvoice; metmom; Lera
Why yes, of course! Each individual knows that each individual’s interpretation of Holy Scripture is infallible. Just ask ‘em.

None of us has ever claimed we were infallible, only that God's word, the Bible, is. The word infallible means:

    incapable of error
    unerring
    not liable to mislead, deceive or disappoint
    unerring
    unfailing

All these attributes describe Holy Scriptures because they alone are Divinely inspired - God breathed - and God will not mislead, disappoint or deceive. He never errs, makes mistakes or fails us. He keeps all his promises. Attributes which, by the way, are impossible human qualities. It would help in our discussions if you could remember this very important distinction.

1,224 posted on 02/01/2012 8:20:48 PM PST by boatbums (Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us. Titus 3:5)
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To: boatbums

Where is that distinction when each individual claims his or her own authority in determining and interpreting scripture?


1,225 posted on 02/01/2012 8:35:42 PM PST by D-fendr (Deus non alligatur sacramentis sed nos alligamur.)
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