Yes, you answered the question I asked rzman21. He has yet to answer.
In reply, I am glad to see that you answered as you did.
To your two questions: First, yes, of course, Christ commanded His church to teach in Matthew 28 (and other places). But self-evidently He didn’t command His church to teach contrary to God’s written word, either of the Old or New Testament. As Jesus pointed out to Pharisee, Sadducee, priest, elder, and scribe alike in regard to the Old Testament, they were not free to interpret the Scriptures contrary to their plain, God-intended sense. That surely holds true for the New Testament church and the New Testament Scriptures. Or do you assert otherwise? Second, yes, of course, the church is teaching in Acts 8 (as again in many, many other places). Yet, again, not at variance with the written word, but in harmony with it. Of do you assert otherwise?
so you are able to understand Scripture better than the Universal Church has for 2,000 years?
are you infallible in your understanding of the “plain” meaning of Scripture?