See the problem is Catholics ASSUME they are THAT church of the NT... the word church does not mean a denomination but the called out ones..the saved..
There was no Roman Catholic Church for 300 years after these words were spoken..
Please, stop attempting to speak authoritatively. Unless you can demonstrate the Gift of Tongues, which is the ability to fluently speak a language you were never exposed to, a few hours spent stumbling around on the internet is not equivalent to a proper education. Your time would be better spent and you would be left with fewer errors if you sought out a real education with real books and professors, homework and tests.
The actual word used was Ekklesia (á¼ÎºÎºÎ»Î·Ïƒá½·Î±). While a completely literal translation means "called out" the actual translation referred to a formal body of Greek democratic governance. It predated the writing of the New Testament by some 500 years. The Ekklesia was the body that held the power to declare war, sue for peace, choose and charge, try and remove magistrates and governmental officers and held the authority to pass the death sentence over citizens. It was not some ragtag body as Protestantism suggests. In the new testament context it is the Church.
there was no Roman Catholic Church for 300 years after Matthew?
LOL!
i love these statements that are just thrown out there without any facts or evidence provided to support them.
let’s examine this statement, shall we?
who established the Roman Catholic Church in the 4th century?
what happened to the Christians before the RCC was established?
what historians or Christian before the 16th century thought the RCC was started in the 4th century and not the 1st?
what doctrinal change in the 4th century was started by thr RCC as opposed to the Christians before them?
St Augustine lived in Northern Africa in the late 4th century, early 5th century. He wrote that the Catholic Church, of which he was a bishop, was the Church established by Jesus Christ. what do you know in the 21st century that St Augustine didn’t know in the late 4th century?
in the mid 2nd century, St Irenaeus provided a continuous list of the Bishops of Rome from St Peter to the Bishop of his day. Augustine provided an updated list from that period til his day. how were they wrong and you are right?
much like my question of who has the authority to infallibly state the canon of Scripture, these questions will go unanswered.
cue the crickets..........