A quick post before I retire but there were two different and distinct Inquisitions. It was the Roman Inquisition that was set up by the Church to combat the Albigensians in southern France. It never operated in Spain. The Spanish Inquisition was established by the Spanish crown and served the interests of the state, not those of the Church. Its attacks against the Conversos were a product of the state to eliminate those who were feared to be politically subversive; its purpose was not to target Jews to force their conversion. Failure to understand this distinction is a failure to understand history.
Sigh. Its purpose was pretty clearly to target Jews and Muslims who, the Church believed, had insincerely converted to Catholicism. Why did they insincerely convert? Because they were threatened with death, exile, or loss of property. Study up on the massacres committed in 1391, which were incited by the Archdeacon of Ecija, or the conditions imposed on Jews in 1492. If Spain hadn't forced or coerced Jews to convert, often on pain of death, it wouldn't have had the problem of "insincere" converts to go after through an Inquisition. Do you deny the century of massacres, oppression and hatred that preceded the expulsion? Do you excuse it? Do you really think it matters that much if some people who aren't super history scholars attribute those atrocities to the Inquisition, instead of local priests, angry Christian mobs, and the Spanish crown?