[Jvette]

I could accept that explanation, except for the fact that Scripture in both lists specifically mention Joseph as the descendent and not Mary.

Was Joseph not chosen for her spouse and the “father” of Jesus so that the prophecy could be fulfilled?

If it must come through both, then why is Mary not listed as a descendent?

[CynicalBear]

In Old Testament times a word for father-in-law or grandfather did not exist. Jacob and Heli cannot both be Josephs father. The Jerusalem Talmud (Chag. 77,4) states that Heli was Mary’s father making him Joseph’s father-in-law. Joseph descended from Solomon and Mary was the descendant of Nathan.

That would actually make Joseph and Mary distant cousins. Heli had no sons, According to Numbers 36, Mary had to have a husband from the tribe of Judah to protect her fathers estate. Jesus also needed to have a lineage from to Solomon to establish Jesus claim to the throne of David since Nathan’s descendants were not of the Royal line.

Joseph was that descendent of Solomon. Because of the blood curse on descendants of Solomon any blood descendant or biological descendant could not be King of the Jews. Since Joseph is not Jesus biological father he was not under that curse but by Joseph adopting Jesus which qualified Jesus to be King of the Jews.

Thus, because of the virgin birth, Jesus became the only one in Israel qualified to sit on David’s throne, and remains so to this day.