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To: Mad Dawg
Col 1:24 NOT in the KJV, which shucked and jived on this verse.

Only in your wildest Catholic dreams...

104 posted on 10/23/2011 1:32:42 AM PDT by Iscool (You mess with me, you mess with the WHOLE trailerpark...)
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To: Iscool
Where does it say in the Bible that the KJV or the textus receptus is inspired?

Do the word study. That's what I did. I used my KJV analytical concordance and the Greek. I concluded that the they had pulled out an artificial translation of hysteremata in that one verse.

I first encountered this text it all its wonder in seminary which was going through a neo-Orthodox Calvinist phase when was there. I left just before it went utterly off the rails. But we used the RSV, except for us Bible geeks who used Greek and Hebrew when we could.

My seminary was VERY anti-Catholic, by the way, but the RSV agrees with me.

But to you I would suggest that a weakness of Sola Scriptura is the question of WHICH Scriptura, which one seems to have to go outside of Scripture to answer.

107 posted on 10/23/2011 1:58:22 AM PDT by Mad Dawg (Jesus, I trust in you.)
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