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To: Campion; RnMomof7; wmfights; Mr Rogers; smvoice; metmom; Quix; boatbums; caww

I think we're not understanding each other. The English word "priest" undisputably comes from the Greek word "presbyter". The English word "bishop" undisputably comes from Greek word "episcopos". Any dictionary will demonstrate that;

What is being misunderstood is that saying this “comes from” the Greek only means that is how it came to be translated into English, but this does not establish that this represents what the Greek denotes, and in this case the the Greek word “presbuteros” (not "presbyter") indisputably (not “undisputably”) is NOT the word for “priest,” nor does it denote a unique sacrificial function, as it simply means “senior” including as denoting a senior position, while episkopeō (translated as “bishop”) means “superintendent” or “overseer.” [from “epi” and “skopos” (“watch”) in the sense of “episkopeō,” to oversee, (Strong's)]

In distinction, “hiereus” (from “hieros”) means “priest." Any lexicon will demonstrate that.

Thus hieros or archiereus (high priest) is only used in the Bible for the old Jewish or pagan priests, and that of the priesthood of Christ and of all believers, and never as the term for New Testament pastors and are distinct from what Scripture refers to as a separate clerical class of priests. They are never referred to as priests except by inclusion with all believers who engage in priestly functions, including making sacrifices. (Rm. 12:1; Phil. 4:18; Heb. 1:15,16; 1Pt. 2:5)

Therefore rendering presbuteros as a title for priests, which the DRB inconsistently does, (Acts 20:17; Titus 1:5, versus presbyters — not priests — in the official Roman Catholic Bible for America) is an attempt to conform the Bible to what Rome made presbuteros to mean by way of perceived functionality, that of a separate class of sacerdotal priests.

Roman Catholics explain that the Latin word sacerdos is the semantical equivalent of the Greek word ‘ (hiereus), but the word presbyteros took on the meaning of sacerdos due the nature of Christ's explanation of the presbyterate, that of presiding at the celebration of the Eucharist. (Which is another study on extrapolation.) And that “the Latin word presbyter has no lingual or morphological relationship with the Latin word sacerdos, but only an inherited semantical relationship.” (http://catholicforum.fisheaters.com/index.php?topic=744379.0;wap2z)

In response to a query on this issue, the web site of International Standard Version (though not my preferred translation) states,

No Greek lexicons or other scholarly sources suggest that "presbyteros" means "priest" instead of "elder". The Greek word is equivalent to the Hebrew ZAQEN, which means "elder", and not priest. You can see the ZAQENIM described in Exodus 18:21-22 using some of the same equivalent Hebrew terms as Paul uses in the GK of 1&2 Timothy and Titus. Note that the ZAQENIM are NOT priests (i.e., from the tribe of Levi) but are rather men of distinctive maturity that qualifies them for ministerial roles among the people.

Therefore the NT equivalent of the ZAQENIM cannot be the Levitical priests. The Greek "presbyteros" (literally, the comparative of the Greek word for "old" and therefore translated as "one who is older") thus describes the character qualities of the "episkopos". The term "elder" would therefore appear to describe the character, while the term "overseer" (for that is the literal rendering of "episkopos") connotes the job description.

To sum up, far from obfuscating the meaning of "presbyteros", our rendering of "elder" most closely associates the original Greek term with its OT counterpart, the ZAQENIM. ...we would also question the fundamental assumption that you bring up in your last observation, i.e., that "the church has always had priests among its ordained clergy". We can find no documentation of that claim. http://isv.org/catacombs/elders.htm

it's not a matter of "attempts to conform the Bible to Roman Catholicism" (??), it's a simple fact of the development of language.

Rather it is a fact of the developer of Rome to impose its will over language, in what Rome perceives the pastors of the N.T. as doing determines the meaning of presbuteros, despite the meaning in the Greek and its titular distinction from priests.

It would be nice if we had a different English word for hieraeus, but we don't.

We do not need one, as it means priests, and presbuteros means elder and is used in distinction to what the Bible terms a class of clerical priests, and its contrary in etymology. Jewish presbyters existed before the priesthood, and the titles are used in distinction to priests, as is episkopos, and which was also “applied to the inspectors sent by Athens to her subject states, to inquire into their state, to rule and defend them.” (Smith's Bible Dictionary)

The NT is ambiguous about episcopoi and presbyteroi being the same office. They don't say flatly that they are, nor that they are not.

It does not need to be said flatly, anymore than the Trinity must be, which rests upon the cumulative weight of clear statements and is demanded if there would be not contradictions, while this issue is not ambiguous in the light of all that Scripture states in conflation with each other. For unlike hiereus and presbuteros or episkopeō, the latter two titles are used interchangeably without distinction. Titus was to “set in order the things that are wanting, and ordain elders [presbuteros] in every city, as I had appointed thee: If any be blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly. For a bishop [episkopos] must be blameless...” (Titus 1:5-7) Paul also "sent to Ephesus, and called the elders of the church," (Acts 20:17) who are said to be episkopos in v. 28. Elders are also who were ordained in Acts 14:23, and bishops along with deacons are the only two classes of clergy whom Paul addresses in writing to the church in Phil. 1:1.

The writings of Ignatius of Antioch (died AD 107-110, knew at least Peter, Paul, and John personally) are not ambiguous. They clearly show an episcopos as one man having authority over the church in a (large) town or region, with his presbyteroi, under obedience to him, ministering to the needs of the people, primarily by presiding at the Eucharistic celebration.

It is not incongruous to surmise that that there were arch elder/bishops over other elder/bishops, but this does not support two different titles which Scripture does not use, and fosters the hierarchical class distinctions and love of titles which the Lord warned about (Mk. Mk. 10:42-44; Mt. 23:8-10, by hyperbole) )

Heretical according to an authority which infallibly declares she is infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and content-based) formula, thus rendering her own declaration to be infallible

Circular word games aren't really required: Tyndale's notes were heretical according to Catholic teaching, which hasn't changed on these issues before or since.

Unlike RC attempts to negate the titular distinction between presbuteros and hiereus, there are no word games here. The description of the basis for assuredly infallible decrees is what it is, true, and her saying they are does not make them infallible, while Rome today is guilty of the type of translational “heresies” leveled at Tyndale.

56 posted on 10/08/2011 12:50:28 PM PDT by daniel1212 (Our sinful deeds condemn us, but Christ's death and resurrection gains salvation. Repent +Believe)
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To: daniel1212; Campion; RnMomof7; wmfights; smvoice; metmom; Quix; boatbums; caww

For a translator, the relevant question is, “What did the original readers understand when they read the word?”

“No Greek lexicons or other scholarly sources suggest that “presbyteros” means “priest” instead of “elder”. The Greek word is equivalent to the Hebrew ZAQEN, which means “elder”, and not priest. You can see the ZAQENIM described in Exodus 18:21-22 using some of the same equivalent Hebrew terms as Paul uses in the GK of 1&2 Timothy and Titus. Note that the ZAQENIM are NOT priests (i.e., from the tribe of Levi) but are rather men of distinctive maturity that qualifies them for ministerial roles among the people.

Therefore the NT equivalent of the ZAQENIM cannot be the Levitical priests. The Greek “presbyteros” (literally, the comparative of the Greek word for “old” and therefore translated as “one who is older”) thus describes the character qualities of the “episkopos”. The term “elder” would therefore appear to describe the character, while the term “overseer” (for that is the literal rendering of “episkopos”) connotes the job description. To sum up, far from obfuscating the meaning of “presbyteros”, our rendering of “elder” most closely associates the original Greek term with its OT counterpart, the ZAQENIM.”

http://isv.org/catacombs/elders.htm

The word, when used in the New Testament, did NOT convey the idea of a priest offering sacrifices. The idea of Eucharist meaning an ongoing, continual sacrifice of Jesus had to be developed before the Eucharist (thanksgiving) could be turned into a sacrifice requiring priests.

The New Testament church had no priests, other than the priesthood of the believer, offering sacrifices of praise and obedience.

Another good, short discussion is here:

http://www.answers.com/topic/presbyter


57 posted on 10/08/2011 3:04:08 PM PDT by Mr Rogers ("they found themselves made strangers in their own country")
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To: daniel1212

Excellent super yeoman’s scholarly work as usual.


61 posted on 10/08/2011 7:26:41 PM PDT by Quix (Times are a changin' INSURE you have believed in your heart & confessed Jesus as Lord Come NtheFlesh)
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