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To: John McDonnell; Godzilla; MHGinTN

Therefore, when Jesus referred to the least part of the law and the prophets, which He Himself inspired to be written with their full vowel markings included for clarity, He had to be referring to vowel markings as well.

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I missed this one. HAHAHAHAHAHAHAHHA. That is funny. The Hebrew/Aramaic that Jesus spoke had no vowel marks. Again, take a look at the Dead Sea Scrolls.


421 posted on 08/02/2011 7:21:54 PM PDT by reaganaut (Ex-Mormon, now Christian - "I once was lost, but now am found; was blind but now I see")
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To: reaganaut

Do ya suppose little john is making it up as he goes, or is he spouting some esoteric gobbledigoop LDS teaches in their ‘secret preisthood’ classes?


422 posted on 08/02/2011 7:26:03 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Some, believing they can't be deceived, it's nigh impossible to convince them when they're deceived.)
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