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To: OLD REGGIE; Cronos; bkaycee; madison10; Natural Law; MarkBsnr; D-fendr

Psalm 69 is written by King David, who is writing his earnest prayer to God, based on his own experiences. However, King David prefigures Christ, and so his prayers weren’t mere prayers, but had prophetic significance. However, in transferring the relevance from David to Christ, what was physically real in reference to David becomes spiritually real in reference to Christ:

Whereas David was referring to actual sins, when Psalm 69 is understood as referring to Christ, we must understand that it refers to those sins imputed to him. Likewise, 69:8 (which already uses figurative language) refers not to actual sons of the speakers’ mother, but to the children of Israel, who did not recognize Jesus’ divinity or authority.

James, “the brother of Jesus” is in Luke 6:16 identified as the brother of Jude, (not to be confused with James, the son of Zebedee and brother of John.) James and Jude are “of Alphaeus,” not of Joseph or of Mary or of Bethlehem or of Nazareth or of Capernaum.

Mary of Clophas was “of Alphaeus.” This Mary was the Blessed Virgin Mary’s sister (John 19:25). (I always presumed this meant “sister-in-law,” but I’ve been told that sisters then could share a first name.) Hence, we can reasonably know that James and Jude the disciples were in fact first cousins of Jesus.

As for “resorting to typically juvenile insults,” it is ironic that OLD REGGIE is name-calling, posting silly pictures and referring to Cronos’ correct argument as “loud stupidity.”


852 posted on 06/21/2011 10:01:47 AM PDT by dangus
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To: dangus
No, we cannot "reasonably know" that James and Jude were Jesus' cousins. The Bible specifically mentions brothers and sisters:

"Is not this the carpenter's son?," the Jews asked, "is not his mother called Mary? And his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are thy not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?" (Matt. 13: 55, 56 KJV).

854 posted on 06/21/2011 10:13:27 AM PDT by madison10
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To: dangus; bkaycee; madison10; Natural Law; MarkBsnr; D-fendr
Psalm 69 is written by King David, who is writing his earnest prayer to God, based on his own experiences. However, King David prefigures Christ, and so his prayers weren’t mere prayers, but had prophetic significance. However, in transferring the relevance from David to Christ, what was physically real in reference to David becomes spiritually real in reference to Christ:

Whereas David was referring to actual sins, when Psalm 69 is understood as referring to Christ, we must understand that it refers to those sins imputed to him. Likewise, 69:8 (which already uses figurative language) refers not to actual sons of the speakers’ mother, but to the children of Israel, who did not recognize Jesus’ divinity or authority.

I agree, it is generally identified as a Psalm of David. I deliberately quoted the Douay Rheims introduction in the hopes that soneone could offer an explanation of the apparent discrepancy in the various "official" Catholic Bibles.

Thank you for your reasoned response. It does not explain; however, how Douay Rheims got it wrong.

Salvum me fac, Deus. Christ in his passion declareth the greatness of his sufferings, and the malice of his persecutors the Jews; and foretelleth their reprobation.

[6] "My foolishness and my offences"... which my enemies impute to me: or the follies and sins of men, which I have taken upon myself.

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As for “resorting to typically juvenile insults,” it is ironic that OLD REGGIE is name-calling, posting silly pictures and referring to Cronos’ correct argument as “loud stupidity.”

OLD REGGIE is too often guilty of "improper" conduct and accepts responsibility for his actions. I will strive, and on occassion, will fail to do better.

As for the "correct argument" I labellled "loud stupidity"; I would appreciate it if you pointed me to the post in question.

857 posted on 06/21/2011 10:59:07 AM PDT by OLD REGGIE (I am a Biblical Unitarian?)
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