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I don't argue that the verse you quote isn't true, I am just telling you the fact that it doesn't prove what you think it proves. Yes, it's the Word of God and in no way is it incorrect. It just does not prove that those persons were brothers to Jesus Christ in the way we accept and use the word brother.

Now, where does that rely on anything but Scripture? It doesn't it simply states a fact about the way the Scripture was written in the original language and the way words were defined at that time. Since I do not see how Scripture can answer the question clearly one way or another I believe the testimony of witnesses as that testimony has been handed down for several thousand years the same exact way Scriptures were handed down prior to being written out and combined into the Bible. If you want to start a topic regarding who may and may not be infallible, fine, but it in no way relates to the question at issue in any way, shape, or form. Infallibility of Scripture isn't an issue, either, only your interpretation in the face of Scriptures that contradict your personal interpretation is at issue.

have a nice day

"When one takes an others "infallibility" as doctrine over reaped Scripture."

Because of the differences and disagreements over what is canon and what is not the Bible has been called an errant collection of inerrant works. No Scripture exists dictating which books and works are to be included so God, in his infinite wisdom, gave us a commission of men, directed by the Holy Spirit to infallibly capture preserve, defend and interpret the written Word.

Now you tell us that infallibility is too great a prerogative to be conferred on man even though God made man the organ of his revealed Word, is it impossible for Him to have made man its infallible guardian and interpreter. You also tell us that since the Scripture itself is inerrant and infallible that is sufficient.

How infallibly certain are you that an infallible Bible is sufficient for you or for everyone? Either you are infallibly certain that your interpretation of the Bible is correct, or you are not.

If you are infallibly certain, then you assert for yourself, and of course for every reader of Scripture, a personal infallibility which you deny the Pope, and which we claim only for him. You make every man his own Pope.

If you are not infallibly certain that you understand the true meaning of the whole Bible of what use to you is the objective infallibility of the Bible without an infallible interpreter?