This is not a gotcha question. How does one decide that one verse is to be taken so literally as to be proof of something while another verse is just a figure of speech?
Did Mary have other children? The Bible seems to suggest yes. Catholic Tradition says no. Which will you trust?
John ch 19
26When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! 27Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.
Some people would have every one believe that the woman who bore and raised the son of God also bore other children who were also followers of Jesus but so noacount that they could not even care for their own mother.
and this is plus the other scriptures that indicate the same thing
I think any one who would buy that just have not give it much thought.
There is no mention of Mary having other children.
This seems to be just a protestant and Catholic thing, the protestants will go to any length to let the world know that they believe the Catholic,s are a false church, but on more important issues like changing the sabbath from the seventh day of the week to the first day of the week, they have swallowed that hook, line and sinker.
I do not know for sure who the supposed brethren of Jesus were but i really believe that the protestant Churches are the daughters of the Catholic church, and no i am not a seventh day advent.
You know what’s always struck me about this, and similar types of debates that are, ultimately not about whether or not Mary had kids, (they are about whether or not the Magisterium of the Catholic Church has the knowledge, much less the authority, to teach the Faith, and if that’s “mind reading” to say that, so be it I don’t care anymore)...
....but what has really struck me is the implied claim that for over 1500 years, “apparently”, the same Magisterium never bothered to read Scripture as “effectively” or as “rationally” as say, Matt Slick.
Such people, whoever they may be, obviously have a low opinion of their fellow man, so low in fact that they must believe the Holy Spirit would never deign to help such people who obviously desired to teach the Faith (the Magisterium). No, He just pretty much gave up on His Church for 1500 years until people with the “right way to read the Bible, i.e., anything anti Catholic came along”, and then He said, “Finally, some people who are worthy of my Grace”.
Is the hubris there only obvious to me? (note, that’s a rhetorical question; if one chooses to respond to it in writing, don’t take my non-response as proof of some great point made, as that would be a foolish thing to do, for an answer to a rhetorical question)