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To: harmonium
Neither are comparable.

I think they are.

Remember, Paul also says "to the Gentile" in pretty much the same breath.

There is no offense intended in the context of the use of the phrase, either in the 1st century or today.

15 posted on 05/26/2011 3:31:57 PM PDT by Siena Dreaming
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To: Siena Dreaming

“Remember, Paul also says “to the Gentile” in pretty much the same breath”

Uh, No. Gentile, Christian...these terms do not currently describe an ethno-religious nation or diaspora.

Mind you, if you ever read a bunch of Judaic scholars debating how to deal with “The Goy”, it would be equally as concerning...and still, it doesn’t call to mind pseudo anthropological studies meant to dehumanize one group during the mid-Century.


17 posted on 05/26/2011 7:04:13 PM PDT by harmonium
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