[kosta50]

So what are you saying? Are you saying that proper names are normally accompanied by the definite article?

In Greek, yes. It's ο θεος (the God), η ζων (the Life), το φως (the Light), ο λογοσ (the Word), etc.

There is no indefinite article. The equivalent of the English indefinite article a/any in Greek is the absence of it! Thus, λογος is a or any word, and κυριος is a or any lord.

I don't make the rules, and I don't spin.

Are you saying that John, a monotheistic Jew, intended by this to refer to a ‘lesser’ god, not to be confused with the True God he had just mentioned?

"John" was not one but many. John's Gospel, as we know it, is a highly interpolated late first century and highly Hellenized multi-author work that is neither expicitly Trinitarian nor monotheistic. As for being "lesser" that God, that is in John's Gospel as well (cf John 14:28)

[Diamond]

There is no indefinite article. The equivalent of the English indefinite article a/any in Greek is the absence of it! Thus, λογος is a or any word, and κυριος is a or any lord.

So in verse 6 of the same passage, to follow the kosta50 rule consistently, it should be translated "from a god" rather than "God", and "a John" rather than "John"?

Cordially,