...There is no doubt that, grammatically, the verse reads "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with [or towards, or near] God, and the Word was a God.The use of Greek articles leaves no doubt that the second God was [a god].
Likewise, saying that there is only one God and therefore there can be no other Gods is not true. Logically, if someone is himself the one and only Lord God, then he is not "with" or "towards" or "near" himself, thus the Greek pros here represents a problem with the official Church explanation.
Can you cite any grammatical rule, source or authority in support of your assertion that this clause of John 1:1 should be translated, "...the Word was a god"? As far as I can tell no one ever translated John 1:1 into English that way until 1950, when the Watchtower Society published its hideous, ignoramus "translation" of the Bible.
Every grammatical authority that I have ever seen on the use of the Greek article in this verse refutes the notion that it should be translated "a god."
Article citing various grammars and lexicons on John 1:1
Cordially,
Your source also mentions Sabelianism. This, too, is disingenuous. John's late 1st century theology was as far as it gets from any orthodox Christology to even contemplate arguing against Sabellianism or modalism, which is a 3rd century Christological doctrine.