It is a quite simple question based upon your quote. If it is a question you don't care to deal with, o.k., so be it, but if so at least make that clear.
I was asking for a clarification, as i see no dilemma.
You asked, "But which one is Father and which one is Son if both are definite, “the” God? in John 1:1" but the answer is quite obvious. If the Word was both with God and was God, then you have at least a duality, and if the the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth, (n. 14) with v. 17 identifying Him as Jesus Christ, and v. 18 as the Son who is in the bosom of the Father, who declares/manifests God, then Word is the Son, and God consists at least of the Father and the Son. The Spirit is mentioned in v. 33, and which other texts attributing personhood and Deity to Him.
I know you've thought about the subject a good deal as your work at that link [hyperlinked added]. I'm trying to get a bit more into your thinking if you will.
I have indeed wrested with this, seeking the truth, and after praying and consideration of all that is said, i feel that the evidence demands the conclusion that the Holy Spirit, mainly thru John as well as Hebrews and other texts, is purposely if often subtly declaring the Son to be God, and that the objections to that do not warrant a contrary conclusion.
John certainly wasn’t saying the God was the God and the Logos was also the God, was he? That seems to be what you are saying if both times “God” appears in John 1:1 is definite, “THE” God.