The Apocrypha itself never claims to be the Word of God. What right does Rome have to declare it?
The early church showed no unanimous support for these works, Some used it and some did not.. These works were opposed by
Athanasius, Cyril of Jerusalem, Origen, and Jerome ...Fathers catholics are quick to quote as if they were infallible.. I guess they were only infallible when they agree with them
“The Apocrypha itself never claims to be the Word of God.”
What a ridiculous criteria!
How many books of the Bible would be excluded if THAT were the standard?
And what of the fraudulent N.T. editing by Luther?
Protestants certainly have no “unanimous support” for much, considering the 13,000 denominations. Private, yet, conflicting revelation is NOT very convincing.
“The early church showed no unanimous support...”
“Unanimous support” is NOT the criteria!
The Synod of Hippo (393) and the three of Carthage (393, 397, and 419), are quite sufficient!
It would be interesting to see you put that test to each of the books in the Protestant canon.
These works were opposed by Athanasius, Cyril of Jerusalem, Origen, and Jerome
That is not true. For example, see these quotes from Athanasius, Cyril and Origen. Jerome did have some problem with them, but then submitted to Church teaching.
Fathers catholics are quick to quote as if they were infallible.. I guess they were only infallible when they agree with them
The Church does not teach that they are infallible. Don't try to pass it off as Church teaching because it is not true and it does not bolster your case.