>>I submit if we want to understand this verse, we need to go back and find out how the people it was addressed to understood it.<<
My understanding is that a lot of the “church fathers” only knew the Latin version.
Also, if you want to find out how the people it was addressed to understood it, you cannot fully know without crawling under their skin and into their brain. In the meantime we have surprisingly accurate translations in pretty much every language currently being spoken. And for it to be arguably so close to the original after thousands of years is, frankly, miraculous.
What Latin version? You mean the Vulgate?
Only after the 5th century or so.
That is only true of some of the Western Fathers like Augustine. But Ambrose's Greek was excellent, and Jerome knew Greek as well.
The early Church Fathers (e.g. Irenaeus) wrote in Greek. And the Eastern Fathers all wrote in Greek as well: Chrysostom, Basil, etc.
We have many many writings that illustrate how these folks interpreted certain key passages.