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To: RnMomof7

The salvation of mankind through the incarnation was depndent on Mary’s fiat because God would not have forced her assent. That beig writtine keep in mind that
God knew from all time she would say yes even in allowing her the will to say no.
God would have come into history to offer our salvation by other means had she not said yes.


426 posted on 01/30/2011 11:18:37 AM PST by lastchance (Hug your babies.)
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To: lastchance; RnMomof7
The salvation of mankind through the incarnation was depndent on Mary’s fiat because God would not have forced her assent.

Not exactly. In the Roman system Mary was immaculately conceived, that is she was free from the taint of sin. And she was free from actual sin. The way Rome paints the picture she was effectively incapable of sin. So, to resist God's will would be sin. Ultimately her “choice,” which was no real choice at all, was entirely dependent upon God's sovereignty in her immaculate conception.

Or so the story goes.

432 posted on 01/30/2011 11:57:13 AM PST by topcat54 ("Dispensationalism -- an error of Biblical proportions.")
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To: lastchance
The salvation of mankind through the incarnation was depndent on Mary’s fiat because God would not have forced her assent. That beig writtine keep in mind that God knew from all time she would say yes even in allowing her the will to say no.

Read this sentence carefully.. He KNEW she would say yes, but gave her the freedom to say no... so if HE KNEW she would say yes..could she have said no?? Could Gods foreknowledge be WRONG?

With God is not foreknowledge predestined future?

God would have come into history to offer our salvation by other means had she not said yes.

But you just said that He KNEW she would say yes..

443 posted on 01/30/2011 1:24:58 PM PST by RnMomof7
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To: lastchance

I just want to note that Marshmallow does not agree that God could have used another woman or method


444 posted on 01/30/2011 1:26:34 PM PST by RnMomof7
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