[MortMan]

Mea Culpa.

Mary needn’t have been sinless.

But (from a Catholic point of view), Christ’s sharing of original sin with Mary for 10 months during gestation wouod have tainted him. Therefore, she required absolution from original sin.

MortMan, having attained a perfect state of fatigue, requires sleep.

Therefore, I will answer further responses tomorrow.

Good night, all.

[Grizzled Bear]

But (from a Catholic point of view), Christ’s sharing of original sin with Mary for 10 months during gestation wouod have tainted him. Therefore, she required absolution from original sin.

Christ spoke with the Samaritan woman at the well. He also spent much time with prostitutes, tax collectors and other sinful people. The Pharisees were outraged that he would interact with such "unclean" people. Associating with unclean people would surely make Him unclean!

The Pharisees were also offended that, while on a journey, on the Sabbath, Jesus' disciples "gleaned" wheat from the edge of the field, rolled it in their hands and ate the kernels. That's when Jesus explained why God gave us the Sabbath.

Jesus doesn't seem to conform to the behavior the legalists want to foist upon Him. He Rocks!

[presently no screen name]

But (from a Catholic point of view), Christ’s sharing of original sin with Mary for 10 months during gestation wouod have tainted him. Therefore, she required absolution from original sin.

It's deception. Jesus walked among sinner, you think sin jumps off of one onto the other? I could blow more holes in it but it's not worth the time - it's been done many times before. Catholics believe The RCC's theory because they were taught it - it's a simple as that.