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To: annalex

“Until” the terminus of the first is indicated by the second,
i.e., the first is no longer the case, it ends, when the second occurs.

“I gave you an example of “The field was called X until [eos] ths day”. Does that mean the field got renamed after the gospel was written?”

Not the same construction, no action was stated in that example that would terminate what the field was called. Had you you written “until the field was called “Y” then the construction would be the same and the same meaning and understanding would apply as at Matt. 1:25. (see Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament #2193)


7,041 posted on 01/13/2011 7:43:10 PM PST by count-your-change (You don't have be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
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To: count-your-change
Not the same construction, no action was stated in that example that would terminate what the field was called

The implied second action in Matthew 27:8 is the arrival of the day when Matthew is writing his book.

Amen I say to you, that there are some of them that stand here, who shall not taste death, [eos] they see the kingdom of God coming in power. (Mark 8:39)

According to you, the verse means that the moment the kingdom of God comes, all will taste death (and while dead, see what is going on).

7,149 posted on 02/02/2011 11:09:15 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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