If it were not possible for Jesus to be carried inside a sinful human because of contamination of sin when He Himself was God Himself, then how could a human such as Mary be carried in her sinful mother's womb without contamination of sin from HER mother?
Mary didn't need to be sinless to carry Jesus any more than Mary's mother had to be sinless to carry Mary, if Mary were to be born without sin as the Catholics say.
If Mary's sinful mother could carry Mary without contaminating her,a mere human, with sin, then a sinful Mary could carry God Incarnate without contaminating HIM with sin.
OK, back to this question....Can the Almighty exist as a developing fetus, with umbilical cord exchanging blood and nutrients, inside a sinful mother?
How almighty is a god who can be contaminated by contact with a sinful person?
I'm sorry your God is so weak that He can't handle that.
Sin is not transferred by contact with sinful people. If that were the case, Mary herself could not have been born sinless. Even if she had been and Jesus had been born sinless for that reason, and physical contact with sin is what transferred sin, then when He started His ministry and touched sinful people to heal them, He ought to have contracted sin through that physical contact.
Sin cannot contaminate Jesus or He would not have remained pure when He bore the sins of the world and took the penalty for them. But Jesus' teaching is that it is not what is outside a man which defiles him. It's what comes from the heart.
Matthew 15:10-20 10And he called the people to him and said to them, "Hear and understand: 11 it is not what goes into the mouth that defiles a person, but what comes out of the mouth; this defiles a person." 12Then the disciples came and said to him, "Do you know that the Pharisees were offended when they heard this saying?" 13He answered, "Every plant that my heavenly Father has not planted will be rooted up. 14Let them alone; they are blind guides. And if the blind lead the blind, both will fall into a pit." 15But Peter said to him, "Explain the parable to us." 16And he said, "Are you also still without understanding? 17Do you not see that whatever goes into the mouth passes into the stomach and is expelled? 18But what comes out of the mouth proceeds from the heart, and this defiles a person. 19For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false witness, slander. 20 These are what defile a person. But to eat with unwashed hands does not defile anyone."
How do you reconcile this:
“But SCRIPTURE clearly says that the sin nature comes through the man.” Your post 6877
with this:
“Sin is not transferred by contact with sinful people.” Your post 6882.
You contradict yourself.
There may be some difference in the RC construct, but in addition, when God wants us to know that someone or something is pure and without sin than He tells us in a way that is not problematically derived.
“Which of you convinceth me of sin? And if I say the truth, why do ye not believe me? “ (John 8:46)
“Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: “ (1 Peter 2:22)
“For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. “ (2 Corinthians 5:21)
“For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens; “ (Hebrews 7:26)
“The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple. {8} The statutes of the LORD are right, rejoicing the heart: the commandment of the LORD is pure, enlightening the eyes. {9} The fear of the LORD is clean, enduring for ever: the judgments of the LORD are true and righteous altogether. “ (Psalms 19:7-9)
The question is, if God could God bring forth His pure word thru men who were sinners, though overall holy, (2Pet. 1:20-21) then almighty God could do the same as regards Mary. And such esp. ought to be allowed if transubstantiation is believed, even so far as that the blood of Jesus was in the stomachs of the (kosher) apostles while Jesus was sitting or reclining next to them.
More misdirection?
It is not about the purity of Jesus; it is about the exposure of Mary to the purity of God Almighty. If Mary were impure, would she be able to withstand exposure to the purity of Almighty God. I spoke of the tabernacle of her womb which is analogous to the tabernacle of the Jews. Was that impure? Who was that accessible to? What happened when the impure came in contact with it? What happened when the Jews used it as a weapon?
My question is about the ramifications upon Mary, not God if the expressed beliefs about Mary actually occurred.