+John Chrysostomos appears to disagree, Kosta mou:
"Wherefore then doth Christ thus reply to him, saying, “There is none good?” Because He came unto Him as a mere man, and one of the common sort, and a Jewish teacher; for this cause then as a man He discourses with him. And indeed in many instances He replies to the secret thoughts of them that come unto Him; as when He saith, “We worship we know what;” and, “If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.” When therefore He saith, “There is none good;” not as putting Himself out from being good doth He say this, far from it; for he said not, “Why dost thou call me good? I am not good;” but, “there is none good,” that is, none amongst men.
And when He saith this self-same thing, He saith it not as depriving even men of goodness, but in contradistinction to the goodness of God. Wherefore also He added, “But one, that is, God;” and He said not, “but my Father,” that thou mightest learn that He had not revealed Himself to the young man." Homily LXIII on MATTHEW
Kolo mou, whether he is in his human or divine nature, he is one and the same hypostasis called Logos. The hypostatic union did not making him into a different person, so trying to speculate from which "nature" he spoke is disingenuous given it's still one and the same Person speaking, without confusion.
"There is none good"...“But one, that is, God;”
But older manuscripts of Matthew 19:17 don't mention God.
ὁ δὲ εἶπεν αὐτῷ τί με ἐρωτᾷς περὶ τοῦ ἀγαθοῦ εἷς ἐστιν ὁ ἀγαθός
and He said not, “but my Father,” that thou mightest learn that He had not revealed Himself to the young man."
Nice. How does this square with
πρὸς τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν? (John 20:17)
The eternal Word, divine Logos, calling the Father his God?