ROMANS 3:
20* For no human being will be justified in his sight by works of the law, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
21* But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from law, although the law and the prophets bear witness to it,
22* the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction;
23* since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
24* they are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus,
25 whom God put forward as an expiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God's righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins;
26* it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies him who has faith in Jesus.
27 Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On the principle of works? No, but on the principle of faith.
28* For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law.
Did Paul exclude Mary!
How does Paul differ from your interpretation of "works" and "faith"?
They do have to then explain what the following verse means under that kind of logic:
Titus 3:5
Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
Yes he did. In the same passage, even though you did not cite that part, he says "there is none that seeketh after God" and "The venom of asps is under their lips" and "Their feet swift to shed blood". I don't think that applies to a lot of people, not just Mary.