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To: annalex

I think that whole line came from your comment 2861:

“Any evidence of His virgin birth would have been destroyed in the birthing process” (metmon)

“That is not what th Church teaches. The hymen was closed even after birth. Compare John 20:19.” (annalex)

Of course what does John 20:19 have to do with Jesus’ birth????

“Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you.” (John 20:19)


4,973 posted on 12/07/2010 6:33:29 PM PST by count-your-change (You don't have be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
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To: count-your-change; annalex
Of course what does John 20:19 have to do with Jesus’ birth????

The word ἔρχομαι is being interpreted not as walking in (since the doors were shut), but as appearing without opening the doors. Thus, by analogy, Jesus' birth did not open the womb, but was, like the Incarnation, a supernatural event leaving Mary a virgin.

While it may be consistent, the problem I see with that analogy is that Jesus could not claim the status of the firstborn (of redemption) since in order to have the status of the firstborn the progeny had to "open the womb." (as per the OT).

4,986 posted on 12/08/2010 5:16:15 AM PST by kosta50 (God is tired of repenting -- Jeremiah 15:6, KJV)
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To: count-your-change
what does John 20:19 have to do with Jesus’ birth????

That it illustrates the miraculous nature of the Incarnation of Jesus Christ. Just as someoe wonders how did He pass through the hymen of His mother not violating it, one wonders how did He pass through a bolted door. It does not prove anything, but it explains, and I am here to explain.

5,265 posted on 12/13/2010 5:30:22 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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