You know, you have done this before. You ask a question and it gets answered and then you change your original question. For example, you asked:
Where does God say "I have a reason, a purpose and a plan and you are part of it"?
I gave you the scripture passage from Jeremiah that spoke to that, but it's not acceptable because you say it was speaking to only certain people - ignoring the point that God does not only give the promise for one time only and he is no a respecter of persons, meaning he does not show favoritism towards anyone. So now you are asking for where scripture says God has a "plan for salvation"? I could give you hundreds, but tell me, do you want OT or NT, because it's in both. How many would satisfy your request? Would Paul be acceptable or is Jesus the only goto guy? I would like to know before I start feeling like that cat toy again. :o)
ignoring the point that God does not only give the promise for one time only and he is no a respecter of persons, meaning he does not show favoritism towards anyone.
Sure he does, he shows favoritism to his people, meaning the Jews. He makes that perfectly clear throughout the OT. He doesn't necessarily show favoritism individually withing the Jewish community, but as far as his preference, there is no doubt about who his people are.
So now you are asking for where scripture says God has a "plan for salvation"?
Not really. The only reason I mentioned salvation is because the so-called "plan" and "purpose" (actually boule, or counsel, in Greek), is understood by the Christians as having been the Grand Plan of God's form all eternity, namely the salvation of the elect, and Jeremiah's verses definitely do not point in that direction.
I am just curious why would God create a sinless world, let it fall, just so that he can restore it again with blood an guts. Doesn't sound like a great plan to me.
At any rate I can think of a few verses, where boule occurs, such as Luke 7:30, implying that God's purpose was to baptize the Jews by John the Baptist, which is unsupported by anything in the OT= because the OT God does not require baptism but circumcision.
Or in Acts 2:23, 4:28, 20:27...a clear pattern emerges, namely that it is Luke's innovation because nothing like it prefigures such a thing in the Old Testament.
"But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared, Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life." -- Titus 3:4-7"...even to morrow the LORD will shew who are His, and who is holy; and will cause him to come near unto him: even him whom he hath chosen will he cause to come near unto him." -- Numbers 16:5
That's a plan.