To: mas cerveza por favor
I went to various versions of scripture looking for the term "victim". There are a few versions that does include the word victim including the NKJV (4), NIV (2), RSV (1), NLT (13) [a paraphrase], ESV (1), and HNV (2). I excluded the NLT since it is a poor paraphrase and in all these cases the word victim is just what it says, victim; such as:
Pro 7:25-26 Let not your heart turn aside to her ways; do not stray into her paths, for many a victim has she laid low, and all her slain are a mighty throng. -ESV
When I searched on the word "victim" on my PC version of the DRV I come up with 56 hits on "victim" and 96 hits on "victims". To give you an example of the translation differences, please note the following from my parallel bibles of the same text:
2Co 5:21 (ASV) Him who knew no sin he made to be sin on our behalf; that we might become the righteousness of God in him.
(DRB) Him, who knew no sin, he hath made sin for us: that we might be made the justice of God in him. Sin for us... That is, to be a sin offering, a victim for sin.
(ESV) For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
(Geneva) For he hath made him to be sinne for vs, which knewe no sinne, that we should be made the righteousnesse of God in him.
(KJV) For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
(YLT) for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him.
Please note how the DRB seems to have inserted a commentary in the last part of the version; "that is, to be a sin offering, a victim for sin.". The other texts do not agree with the translation of the DRB. Typical practice in studying various text is that when most translations describes a verse one way, while one has a completely different meaning, you follow the crowd. But one has to wonder if the DRB was modified to push Catholic theology.
To: HarleyD; kosta50; stfassisi; Kolokotronis; metmom
I went to various versions of scripture looking for the term "victim". There are a few versions that does include the word victim including the NKJV (4), NIV (2), RSV (1), NLT (13) [a paraphrase], ESV (1), and HNV (2). [...] When I searched on the word "victim" on my PC version of the DRV I come up with 56 hits on "victim" and 96 hits on "victims". Typical practice in studying various text is that when most translations describes a verse one way, while one has a completely different meaning, you follow the crowd. But one has to wonder if the DRB was modified to push Catholic theology. The Douay-Rheims Bible is the literal English translation from the Latin Vulgate with nothing changed or manipulated. The Latin Vulgate is the literal translation of original NT and Septuagint sources by St. Jerome in the Forth Century. At that time there obviously could have been no Roman agenda to oppose Protestant or East Orthodox theology.
Two Latin words frequently used in the Vulgate are "victima" and "hostia." According to the Google Latin translator, both words can be translated as victim or sacrifice. When applying the translator to the Vulgate text, "victima" is usually translated as "victim," but sometimes as "sacrifice." "Hostia" is usually translated as "sacrifice," but sometimes as "victim." Click the words to see those translations.
I suspect that most of those bibles you searched were translated from the Masoretic text, which was not completed until many centuries after the time of St. Jerome. If there is some agenda to modify the scriptures for theology, it is probably was implemented in the Masoretic text or the non-Vulgate English translations.
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