[smvoice]

I am going to quote something from my reference Bible as to this question:

{The Lord is called Mary's firstborn (Matt.1:25; Lk. 2:7), and the natural inference is that she had other children. The Gr. protokos is used only in Rom. 8:29; Col 1:15-18; Heb. 1:6; 11:28; 12:23; Rev. 1:5 of the first of many others. Had He been her only son, the word would have been monogenes, which occurs in Lk. 7:12; 8:42; 9:38; of human parentage of the "only son", "only daughter," and "only child"; and of the Lord Jesus as "the only begotten of the Father" (Jn. 1:14,18; 3:16,18; 1 Jn. 4:9).}

***********************************************************************{Dake's Annotated Reference Bible. page 67, NT, Col. 4, D.}

[Belteshazzar]

Quote away, smvoice. As I said, there are good arguments both ways. That is the problem. I, for one, am not going to presume to instruct the Holy Spirit on His choice of words. Word usage and context, both immediate and general, determine meaning, not simply what the dictionary entry says.

Coincidently, I too am both a firstborn son and a monogenes. Both are true. Deal with it.

[Quix]

I’ve worn out a Dakes or 3.

Great stuff.

Thanks.

[presently no screen name]

PERFECT. It slices to bits the heresy teaching of the RCC about Mary.

“For the word of God is living and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart”.