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To: annalex
It would not be in the least sinful for Mary to have marital relations with St. Joseph. She remained virgin because she chose to; there was no obligation on her to do so.

And yet it's not recorded in infallible Scripture but what IS recorded in infallible Scripture is this....

Matthew 1:24-2524When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, 25but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.

and

Luke 2:1-7 1In those days a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered. 2This was the first registration when Quirinius was governor of Syria. 3And all went to be registered, each to his own town. 4And Joseph also went up from Galilee, from the town of Nazareth, to Judea, to the city of David, which is called Bethlehem, because he was of the house and lineage of David, 5to be registered with Mary, his betrothed, who was with child. 6And while they were there, the time came for her to give birth. 7And she gave birth to her firstborn son and wrapped him in swaddling cloths and laid him in a manger, because there was no place for them in the inn.

And Luke, being the doctor, no doubt knew what the term *firstborn* meant since he didn't say she gave birth to her ONLY son.

1,906 posted on 11/15/2010 6:49:18 AM PST by metmom (Welfare was never meant to be a career choice.)
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To: metmom; annalex; Jaded; Judith Anne; Legatus; maryz; NYer; Salvation; Pyro7480; Coleus; narses; ...
And yet it's not recorded in infallible Scripture but what IS recorded in infallible Scripture is this....

Matthew 1:24-2524When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, 25but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.

NOWHERE in this passage does Saint Matthew infer that Saint Joseph had relations with the Blessed Mother after our Lord was born. The point of this passage is to validate the Virgin Birth, the word "until" refers to the period of time BEFORE His Birth, not after.

And Luke, being the doctor, no doubt knew what the term *firstborn* meant since he didn't say she gave birth to her ONLY son.

Actually, Saint Luke knew that the term "firstborn" is an important LEGAL term in Jewish law that has NOTHING to do with medicine. The firstborn would be called the firstborn whether there were subsequent births or not. Do a search on the term "firstborn" in the Bible, it occurs nearly one hundred times in the Old Testament.

1,909 posted on 11/15/2010 7:16:44 AM PST by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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To: metmom

You repeat yourself, so I’ll repeat the answer. “Firstborn” does nto signify that there was a secondborn. It is a legal status of a male child dedicated to God.


2,914 posted on 11/22/2010 5:18:18 PM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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