So, when very your next sentence, which Dr. Eckleburg also quoted, states,
Inquisition is purely an internal Catholic matter and not really the business of any non-Catholic.is "Inquisition" here a generalization, or did you intend to refer only to the Spanish Inquisition?
What Dr. Eckleburg clearly disputed are your claims that inquisition was "only concerned with public, baptized Catholics", and that "Jews and Muslims were outside of its scope." Dr. Eckleburg didn't say anything about the Spanish Inquisition per se. You did. Resorting here to your modifier, "Spanish" to the class of Inquisitions as though that single class were representative of the whole class of Inquisitions is utterly fallacious and impotent to rebut in the least anything Dr. Eckleburg actually said,
Sorry, Dr. Eckleburg is not deceitful just because you commit a fallacy of hasty generalization.
Cordially,
Sorry, Dr. Eckleburg is not deceitful just because you commit a fallacy of hasty generalization.
Thank you, Diamond. I appreciate your consistent and faithful witness to God's word...and my post. 8~)
In response to my request that she "be specific" in her objections to what I wrote, she selectively quoted from my sentence to cut out the word "Spanish." She then juxtaposed the hacked quote to events that took place 200 years prior in France. That was deceitful.
Your defense that she was not deceitful rests entirely upon the supposition that she was really referring to another sentence that she never quoted. That is quite a stretch.