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To: Logophile; Paragon Defender
Hey guy's I've some questions:

How did the French word “adieu” get into the Book of Mormon? (Jacob 7:27)

Brigham Young said, “The only men who become Gods, even the Sons of God, are those who enter into polygamy”. (Journal of Discourses, Vol. 11, page 269) Why did the Mormons yield to the pressure of the government and stop practicing polygamy?

If the Book of Mormon was translated by the gift and power of God, why have the Mormons changed it? (There have been over 3,000 changes in the Book of Mormon, exclusive of punctuation changes)

Why is it that no other writings have been found in the language of “Reformed Egyptian”, the supposed language of the Book of Mormon plates? Is there evidence that such a language really existed?

251 posted on 10/28/2010 3:26:57 PM PDT by Osage Orange (MOLON LABE)
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To: Osage Orange
How did the French word “adieu” get into the Book of Mormon? (Jacob 7:27)

Actually, adieu has been an English word since the 14th century. And it got into the Book of Mormon the same way all the other English words did: The book is a translation.

Brigham Young said, “The only men who become Gods, even the Sons of God, are those who enter into polygamy”. (Journal of Discourses, Vol. 11, page 269)

In the same talk, Brigham Young said,

It is the word of the Lord, and I wish to say to you, and all the world, that if you desire with all your hearts to obtain the blessings which Abraham obtained, you will be polygamists at least in your faith, or you will come short of enjoying the salvation and the glory which Abraham has obtained.
In context, President Young seems to be saying that LDS must accept the doctrine even if they did not practice polygamy themselves.

Why did the Mormons yield to the pressure of the government and stop practicing polygamy?

The Lord told them to.

If the Book of Mormon was translated by the gift and power of God, why have the Mormons changed it? (There have been over 3,000 changes in the Book of Mormon, exclusive of punctuation changes)

I thought it was over 4000 changes. No matter. We are not scriptural inerrantists. As Robert J. Matthews observes,

During [Joseph Smith's] lifetime, three editions of the Book of Mormon were printed. Each time, he amended the text in a few places to more correctly convey the intended meaning of his translation. Other changes in these and successive editions were made to correct typographical errors, improper spelling, and inaccurate or missing punctuation and to improve grammar and sentence structure to eliminate ambiguity. None of these changes, individually or collectively, alter the message of the Book of Mormon. (Why have changes been made in the printed editions of the Book of Mormon? Ensign, March 1987)

Why is it that no other writings have been found in the language of “Reformed Egyptian”, the supposed language of the Book of Mormon plates? Is there evidence that such a language really existed?

To be precise, "the reformed Egyptian" is not a language, but the term used by the Nephites for characters based on Egyptian writing. (See Mormon 9:32.)

Since we do not know exactly what this reformed Egyptian was, we cannot say whether it was used to record texts other than the Book of Mormon.

256 posted on 10/28/2010 4:37:19 PM PDT by Logophile
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