You say the passages in Is.7+9 are contemporaneous.....hmm
**When certain passages in Chapter 10 are superimposed on some passages in Chapter 9, it becomes even more evident that the passage Isaiah 9 5-6/[6-7] relates directly to G-d saving Hezekiah and his people from Sannheriv in the eighth century B.C.E.**
The INCREASE of his government(authority) and peace.....from HENCEFORTH(NOW) even for ever(to eternity).
Increase? Starting right then? Hello?
I tell you plainly that after Hezekiah, with the exception of Josiah, it’s been all down hill for the kings on David’s throne. Yes, Israel as a nation has reemerged, and who will be the Messiah is ‘still up in the air’ (pun...heh, heh) in your opinion and those like minded.
Isaiah 7:14-16 is prophecy. Here is why I believe that:
First the ‘virgin’ is the same hebrew word used in the account of Rebekah being found to be Isaac’s wife.
A virgin is not a virgin when conception takes place. Granted, we might not be talking of much more than a couple of minutes, from losing virginity to conception, in some cases.
In verse 16 ‘the land’(singular) that thou abhorrest’ is the land that God gave to the 12 tribes of Israel, ‘forsaken of both her kings’ refers to the kings of Israel and Judah. Then, verses 17-25 pronounce the decline in to servitude and poverty. The people, as a whole, proved that they abhorrest the land that God to gave them by their very actions/sins; changing it to a land of idol worship. (Not so different from the immoral behavior of the people here in the USA; hating the country as it was set up under the Constitution, and wanting it altogether different.)
I really have to marvel at the Judaism interpreters’ views of Isaiah 53, as well as Psalm 22.
For the sake of curiosity, I will also look at what they say about Zech. 12:10; 13:6,7; Isaiah 50:6; 52:14; Micah 5:1,2; and others I have yet to bring to my attention.
I have stayed in the Old Testament for all of this, but will alude to the NT in closing this particular reply:
Concerning the rules regarding the sacrifices; Jesus wasn’t fulfilling only the Passover sacrifice, but all the sacrifices. His was a composite of them all. He had to be.
His second coming is to bring peace. Unfortunately, to accomplish that there will be great loss of life by a majority that cling to their sinful lifestyles.
Jesus disciples were just like David, full of courage one moment, then fearful the next (remember David fleeing from Saul, to live with the Phillistines?). But those same diciples were given the promise of the Spirit prophesied by Joel; then they boldly preached in spite of lashings and imprisonment.
Yes. Hezekiah was a very righteous King. Have you not studied him?
2Kings18: 5 Hezekiah trusted in the LORD, the God of Israel. There was no one like him among all the kings of Judah, either before him or after him. 6 He held fast to the LORD and did not cease to follow him; he kept the commands the LORD had given Moses. 7 And the LORD was with him; he was successful in whatever he undertook.
That is very high praise. So, yes there was a big increase in his government as Hezekiah restored the people back to Torah Judaism. Yes, his decedents blew it but the lineage to David through Solomon is in tact. And the David line is forever. (side note: Jesus's genealogy is fatally flawed in both Matts and Lukes accounts, Matt has him decended through cursed king Jeconiah, which is impossible and Luke has him decended through Nathan to David, it has to be Solomon to David.)
Isaiah 7:14-16 is prophecy. Here is why I believe that: First the ‘virgin’ is the same hebrew word used in the account of Rebekah being found to be Isaac’s wife.
No that is not the case. The word in Hebrew in Isaiah 7 is Haalmah, the young woman. Gen 24:16 shows Rebekah as a virgin: 16 And the damsel was very fair to look upon, a virgin, neither had any man known her; and she went down to the fountain, and filled her pitcher, and came up. But that verse uses the proper word for virgin, Betulah.בְּתוּלָה
Also, if you insist on Isaiah 7 meaning a virgin birth, then that means there were two virgin births and Jesus was not unique.
I really have to marvel at the Judaism interpreters’ views of Isaiah 53, as well as Psalm 22.
Why? Both Is 53 and Ps 22 are badly mistranslated and taken out of context by the church. In Is 53 the "servant" is identified numerous times by Isaiah as the Jewish people, the nation of Israel. Isaiah is constantly switching from the singular to the plural, at times he uses both! Isaiah 43:10
"You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "and my servant whom I have chosen, so that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor will there be one after me.
And notice there is no revelation of a god-man son. Only One G-d.
Listen to this audio, it explains Is 53 very well:Isaiah 53
Psalm 22 again in context, in the previous verses explain verse 16.... 12 My enemies surround me like a herd of bulls; fierce bulls of Bashan have hemmed me in! 13 Like lions they open their jaws against me, roaring and tearing into their prey. 16 in JPS 17 For dogs have encompassed me; a company of evil-doers have inclosed me; like a lion, they are at my hands and my feet.
That makes perfect contextual sense. This is David talking about his enemies. Not about Jesus. The Christian bibles mistranslate the word Ka Ari.
Concerning the rules regarding the sacrifices; Jesus wasn’t fulfilling only the Passover sacrifice, but all the sacrifices. His was a composite of them all. He had to be.
This is impossible. A) the passover is not a sin offering. The passover "lamb" is not the lamb of G-d. The passover lamb was the Israelites slaughtering the Egyptian god (lamb-ram) and defiantly placing the blood on the door posts. It wasnt a matter of the blood saving the Jewish people from G-ds wrath, G-ds wrath was being poured out against Egypt. The angel could obviously tell who was Jewish and who wasnt without the blood. The blood was for the Egyptians to see. Also, the passover lamb had to be eaten before morning. Jesus wasnt eaten.
B) He was a composite of them all? Where in the Tanakh (OT) does it say that the Messiah will be such a thing? No where. Where does it say that human sacrifice is allowed? Where does it say that vicarious human atonement is allowed? Where does it say in the OT that the Messiah will end time dependant sacrifices and make a once for all sacrifice? No where. Where does it say the Mashiach ben David is a god-man? Dont you think that G-d would plainly say so? Why would G-d tell us in Deut 30 that we can do the law and then 1500 years later tell us we cant? That makes G-d a liar or a deciever. Why would G-d tell us that the law is forever and then 1500 years tell us the law is over. Again making G-d a liar or a deciever.
But those same diciples were given the promise of the Spirit prophesied by Joel; then they boldly preached in spite of lashings and imprisonment.
No these events in Joel have not happened yet. If you read the verses preceeding and after, the context clearly shows that those prophetic visions did not occur in the first century.