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To: annalex
You seem to be saying the only choices a translator would have in translating “prosopos” would be either “presence” or “person”, while had you looked at a lexicon you would see a range of acceptable words in English that might preserve the meaning of the Greek.

“What sense does “by many presences to us a gift” make? It is people not presences who pray.”
As I pointed out earlier (maybe you missed it?) :

In Matt. 22:16 what is Jesus saying in “regard the person of men”?
“Hebraistically, the appearance one presents by his wealth or poverty, his rank or low condition; outward circumstances, external condition; so used in expressions which denote TO REGARD THE PERSON in one’s judgment and treatment of men”. Thayer’s Lexicon #4383. (caps mine)
and

At 2 Cor. 1:11 ‘face” or “persons”? Perhaps a toss up.

9,974 posted on 10/10/2010 6:09:52 PM PDT by count-your-change (You don't have be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
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To: count-your-change
You seem to be saying the only choices a translator would have in translating “prosopos” would be either “presence” or “person”

Where did I say that? "Face" is acceptable translation nearly always. "Person" and "face" are homonymous in Greek, -- the Greek reader takes the meaning from context, for example, when "prosopos" is used in the strictly anatomical sense the reader understand it as "face", otherwise, as the entirety of the human individual.

"Presence" is at times acceptable but not in the verses such as Matt 22:16, Gal. 2:6, 2 Cor. 1:11, 2 Cor. 2:10. In either of these "presence" would be if not altogether absurd, a diluted meaning.

I don't disagree at all that the meaning of "person" in Matthew 22:16 is indeed what Thayer suggests. How does that alter the fact that "prosopos" is rightly translated as "person" in that case as well as in various others?

10,086 posted on 10/11/2010 5:42:54 AM PDT by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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