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To: metmom; Jaded; Judith Anne; Legatus; maryz; NYer; Salvation; Pyro7480; Coleus; narses; annalex; ...
For starters, you need to understand that the Ascension and the Assumption are two TOTALLY DIFFERENT events.

Christ ascended into Heaven through His own Power.

The Blessed Mother was assumed into Heaven by our Lord through His own Power.

Where’s the Scripture that states that Mary was born without sin?

Genesis chapter 3 and Luke chapter 1.

Why was it necessary?

So that God was carried in an immaculate vessel.

Why couldn’t/wouldn’t God do that for the rest of the human race then?

Read the first three chapters of Genesis. He could have, He tried to, man failed.

If God could do it for Mary who was born of sinful parents, then He could have done it for Jesus even though He was born of a sinful woman.

He wasn't doing for Mary, He was doing it for Himself.

"Blessed AMONG women" means ALL women. For the Blessed Mother to be conceived in sin would make the mother of God INFERIOR to the mother of Cain.

8,761 posted on 10/05/2010 12:51:57 PM PDT by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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To: wagglebee; Dr. Eckleburg
ridiculous. Ruth was a moabite, joseph married an Egyptian, Christ has harlots and murderers in his family tree. God imparts His Holiness and when the HS came to her, then she was made acceptable. Then the HS departed, just like He did numerous other times in the scriptures, and was not to indwell people again until after the resurrection.
8,772 posted on 10/05/2010 1:07:42 PM PDT by 1000 silverlings (everything that deceives, also enchants: Plato)
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To: wagglebee
For starters, you need to understand that the Ascension and the Assumption are two TOTALLY DIFFERENT events.

Actually, I do understand the difference. I just needed to read it correctly, which I didn't. Sometimes I read too fast.

8,922 posted on 10/05/2010 9:15:09 PM PDT by metmom (Welfare was never meant to be a career choice.)
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To: wagglebee

Actually, there’s nothing that states that Jesus needed to be carried (to term) in a sinless person.

God doesn’t have to have a sinless container to carry Him. He can come in contact with sinful beings and still remain free from sin Himself. Otherwise, the Holy Spirit would not be able to come and live within us, our bodies being the temple of the Holy Spirit.


8,923 posted on 10/05/2010 9:17:58 PM PDT by metmom (Welfare was never meant to be a career choice.)
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To: wagglebee; 1000 silverlings; OLD REGGIE; RnMomof7; Quix; blue-duncan; Alex Murphy; Gamecock
So that God was carried in an immaculate vessel.

And thus explains the confused nature of Roman Catholic human sexuality.

Christ was carried in a human womb. He received His humanity, warts and all, from His mother.

While Christ was sinless, there is no necessity for His mother to be sinless.

Unless He was the product of two gods mating which reveals just how close Rome is to pagan mythology.

8,939 posted on 10/06/2010 12:18:39 AM PDT by Dr. Eckleburg
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