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To: wagglebee; caww; Jaded; Judith Anne; Legatus; maryz; NYer; Salvation; Pyro7480; Coleus; narses
Nevertheless, if we are to believe your theory, we need to believe that the Church was being run by Turkish emperors, but that eventually authority was transferred to the Bishops of Rome. So, to support your theory, perhaps you can fill us in on some of the missing historical events:

I have no intention in playing a game which is based on a dishonest premise.

I stated no theory!

Who called the First Ecumenical Council? Under whose "authority"?

10,689 posted on 10/12/2010 2:18:39 PM PDT by OLD REGGIE (I am a Biblical Unitarian?)
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To: OLD REGGIE

Do not ping me any more.


10,696 posted on 10/12/2010 2:34:51 PM PDT by Judith Anne (Holy Mary, Mother of God, please pray for us sinners now and at the hour of our death.)
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To: OLD REGGIE
The acceptance or rejection of the conclusions of this Council by the Pope is meaningless. The Pope was another Bishop, nothing else, and Constantine V was the effective leader of the Church.

Constantine V was NOT THE LEADER of the church.

10,703 posted on 10/12/2010 2:59:01 PM PDT by Jaded (Stumbling blocks ALL AROUND, some of them camouflaged well. My toes hurt, but I got past them.)
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To: OLD REGGIE; Jaded; Judith Anne; Legatus; maryz; NYer; Salvation; Pyro7480; Coleus; narses; ...
I have no intention in playing a game which is based on a dishonest premise.

I stated no theory!

Really? Here is what you wrote in post #10613:

The Pope was another Bishop, nothing else, and Constantine V was the effective leader of the Church.

There are no history books that I am aware of that suggest that the Byzantine emperor was in charge of the Church in the 8th century.

In the absense of facts to support your claim, it is merely a theory.

You are asking us to believe that the Byzantine Emperor (who lived in Constantinople which is more than 1000 miles from Rome) was in charge of the Church and sometime AFTER the 8th century authority was transferred to the Bishop of Rome. You are asking us to believe that an emperor would give control to a bishop over whom he had no ability to apply political pressure (an ability he WOULD have with the Patriarch of Constantinople). So, I don't think it is a "game which is based on a dishonest premise" to ask for you to provide some verification of your claims. So, let's try this again:

1. When did this transfer of authority take place?
2. At what event did this transfer take place?
3. Who was involved? Which emperor, which bishops?
4. What was the reason for this transfer? Why did the emperors want to surrender authority?
5. Why was authority given to the Bishop of Rome and not the Patriarch of Constantinople?

10,851 posted on 10/13/2010 7:19:23 AM PDT by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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